5 Đề kiểm tra môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: 5 Đề kiểm tra môn Tiếng Anh Lớp 12 (Có đáp án)

1. PRACTICE TEST 1 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others. Question 1: A. telephone B. interpreter C. perverted D. restaurant Question 2: A. measure B. decision C. permission D. pleasure Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. religious B. performance C. miserable D. including Question 4: A. decoration B. temperament C. opportunity D. expectation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: My father used to giving me some good advice whenever I had a problem. A B C D Question 6: The woman of whom the red car is parked in front of the bank is a famous pop star. A B C D Question 7: Migrantworkers live in substandard unsanitary, and dilapidated housing and often are lacking medical A B C D care. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: is the study of the Earth's physical features and the people, plants, and animals that live in different regions of the world. A. Science B. Geography C. History D. Technology Question 9: As it was getting late, the boys decided to the campfire and crept into their sleeping bags. A. put up B. put off C. put out D. put on Question 10: You shouldn’t to your teacher like that. It was very rude. A. have talked B. talk C. have be talked D. talked Question 11: We for three hours and are very tired. A. are walking B. have been walking C. were walking D. had been walking Question 12: It is believed causes insomnia. A. too much caffeine which B. that too much caffeine C. it in too much caffeine D. too much caffeine that Question 13: non-verbal language is important aspect of interpersonal communication. A. /an B. A/ the C. the/ D.The/a Question 14: This small town developed I had expected. A. not fast as B. as much fast as C. slowly than D. much faster than Question 15: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save species. A. endangered B. dangerous C. fearful D. threatening Question 16: The man asked me in English. A. what does this word mean B. what that word means C. what did this word mean D. what that word meant Question 17: The student took that course he could improve his English. A. in order to B. though C. so that D. unless Question 18: An eyewitness described how ten people in the fire. A. had been killed B. had killed C. were killed D. had been being Question 19: No one died in the accident, ? A. didn’t they B. did he C. didn’t he D. did they Question 20: Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “ .”
2. A. You’re welcome B. That would be great C. I feel very bored D. I don't agree, I'm afraid Question 21: - “Can I use your motorbike this evening?” - “ .” A. Of course, you can B. Of course, you might C. It’s my pleasure D. Do it if you can Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination. A. hints B. symptoms C. effects D. demonstrations Question 23: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic. A. wonderful B. acceptable C. pretty high D. reasonable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: We’d better speed up if we want to get there in time. A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down Question 25: The machine has been out of order since last month. A. under repair B. functioning well C. sold out D. refusing orders Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: "Why don't you ask the teacher for help?" Peter asked me. A. Peter advised me to ask the teacher for help. B. Peter recommended me not to ask the teacher for help. C. Peter told me the reason why I did not ask the teacher for help. D. Peter suggested that he should ask the teacher for help. Question 27: The Vietnamese students have to take an entrance exam . A. in order that they should go to a college or university B. for going to a college and university C. so that they can go to a college or university D. so as go to a college or university Question 28: Without skilful surgery, he would not have survived the operation. A. Had it been for skilful surgery he would not have survived the operation. B. He wouldn't have survived the operation if he hadn't had skilful surgery. C. But for skilful surgery he would not have survived the operation. D. With skilful surgery he would have survived the operation. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: She received three letters this morning. All of them were from Tony A. All of the letters from Tony were received by her this morning B. She received three letters this morning, all of which were from Tony C. Three of the letters she received this morning were from Tony D. All letters from Tony were received by her this morning Question 30: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time. A. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time. C. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. D. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35 All relationships go through difficult times. In the past, when married couples had problems they usually didn’t (31) . They had to either (32) with each other or continue to live together in an unhappy relationship. Getting divorced wasn’t an option for most people due to economic and social reasons. Some
3. people believe that this wasn’t such a bad thing. They say that relationships require hard work and (33) .“If a relationship is going to last a lifetime, you have to keep working at it,” says Doreen, who is celebrating her fiftieth wedding anniversary this year. “It isn’t all roses and romance. No one perfect all of the time. These days young people give up when there’s the (34) argument.” Experts agree that communication is key. The most important thing is to keep talking. How many times have you heard yourself say to somebody , “If only you’d listen!” or “ I wish you wouldn’t do that!” The truth is, the (35) couples talk, the better their relationship can be. Question 31: A. grow up B. split up C. chat up D. make up Question 32: A. get on B. go out C. get back D. fall out Question 33: A. agreement B. argument C. achievement D.commitment Question 34: A. smallest B. slightest C. most violent D.most Question 35: A. more B. fewer C. less D.controversial least Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42 A recent investigation by scientists at the U.S.Geological Survey shows that strange animal behavior might help predict earthquakes. Investigators found such occurrences within a ten – kilometer radius of the epicenter of a fairly recent quake. Some birds screeched and flew about wildly; dogs yelped and ran around uncontrollably. Scientists believed that animals can perceive environmental changes several hours or even days before the mishap. Animals were noted as being restless foer several weeks before a Tashkent, Uzbekistan, earthquake. An hour before the disaster, domestic animals refused go to indoors, and dogs howled and barked furiously. In 1960, an earthquake struck Agadir in Morocco. Survivors recall that stray animals, including dogs, were seen streaming out of town before the earthquake. In a safari zoo near San Francisco, llamas would not eat the evening before a 1979 quake, and they ran around wildly all night. Unusual animal behavior preceding earthquakes has been noted for centuries. British Admiral Robert Fitzroy reported huge flocks of screaming seabirds over Concepcion, Chile, in 1835. An hour and a half later, dogs were seen fleeing, and ten minutes later the town was destroyed. Similar stories of chickens running around in apparent states of panic, horses trembling, and dogs barking incessantly were recorded throughout the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries by survivors of eathquakes destruction in India, Yugoslavia, Peru, Mexico, and the United States. In 1976, after monitoring bizarre animal behavior, the Chinese predicted a devastating earthquake. Although hundreds of thousands of people were killed, the government was able to evacuate millions of other people and thus keep the death toll at a lower level. Question 36: What prediction may be made by observing animal behaviors? A. An impending earthquake B. The number of people who will die C. The ten kilometer radius from the epicenter D. The fact that an earthquake has occurred Question 37: The word “devastating” means most nearly the same as A. destructive B. voracious C. intense D. forthcoming Question 38: The author implies that animals are aware of an impending earthquake because A. of their superior intelligence B. they have certain instinctive abilities to perceive that humans do not possess C. they are generally closer to epicenter than the human observers D. they react to other animal behavior Question 39: The word “epicenter” is nearest in meaning to A. stratosphere B. contour C. periphery D. core Question 40: All of the following statements are true EXCEPT A. some animals may be able to sense an approaching earthquake.
4. B. by observing animal behavior scientists perhaps can predict earthquake. C. the Chinese have successfully predicted an earthquake and saved many lives. D. only dogs and horses seem to possess the special perception that allows them to predict earthquakes. Question 41: The passage implies that if scientists can accurately predict earthquakes, there will be A. fewer animals going crazy B. a lower death rate C. fewer people evacuated D. fewer environmental changes Question 42: The word “evacuate” is closest in meaning to A. remove B. exile C. destroy D. emaciate Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50 Noise is unwanted sound and is among the most pervasive pollutants today. Noise from road traffic, jet planes, jet skis, garbage trucks, construction equipment, manufacturing processes, lawn mowers, leaf blowers, and boom boxes, to name a few, are among the unwanted sounds that are routinely broadcast into the air. The problem with noise is not only that it is unwanted, but also that it negatively affects human health and well- being. Problems related to noise include hearing loss, stress, high blood pressure, sleep loss, distraction and lost productivity, and a general reduction in the quality of life and opportunities for tranquillity. We experience noise in a number of ways. On some occasions, we can be both the cause and the victim of noise, such as when we are operating noisy appliances or equipment. There are also instances when we experience noise generated by others just as people experience second-hand smoke. While in both instances, noises are equally damaging, second-hand noise is more troubling because it has negative impacts on us but is put into the environment by others, without our consent. The air into which second-hand noise is emitted and on which it travels is a “commons”, a public good. It belongs to no one person or group, but to everyone. People, businesses, and organizations, therefore, do not have unlimited rights to broadcast noise as they please, as if the effects of noise were limited only to their private property. On the contrary, they have an obligation to use the commons in ways that are compatible with or do not detract from other uses. People, businesses, and organizations that disregard the obligation to not interfere with others' use and enjoyment of the commons by producing noise pollution are, in many ways, acting like a bully in a school yard. Although perhaps unknowingly, they nevertheless disregard the rights of others and claim for themselves rights that are not theirs. We have organized to raise awareness of noise pollution and help communities take back the commons from those acting like bullies. Our efforts include building a library of resources and tools concerning noise pollution, establishing links to other groups that have similar collections, establishing networks among local noise activists, assisting communities and activists who are working to reduce noise pollution, and monitoring and advocating for stronger noise controls. Question 43: It is stated in the passage that all of the following are things the noise comes from EXCEPT . A. Television, radio B. Lawn mower, leaf blowers C. Road traffic, garbage trucks D. Jet planes, watercraft Question 44: It can be inferred from the passage that the effects of noise pollution on the human body are that . A. people get accustomed to ear and heart diseases B. people focus mainly on hearing C. people have difficulty falling asleep D. people are sensitive about everything around them Question 45: Which of the following is supposed to be way to reduce noise pollution? A. cooperation with other noise activists B. fining people who break laws in noise regulation C. construction of large projects along roads D. prohibiting public transport during peak hours
5. Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to . A. the air B. a public good C. effect of noise D. second-hand noise Question 47: It is mentioned in the passage that when we are operating noisy appliances or we experience noise generated by others . A. The noise is so troublesome if we make it or not. B. We feel more comfortable if we don’t experience second-hand noise. C. The noise have a strong influence on us, but not on others. D. We just ignore the serious detriment if the noise is put into the environment by others. Question 48: The word “disregard” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by which of the following? A. ignore B. obey C. invade D. disturb Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Noise that is experienced by people who did not produce it is called second-hand noise. B. People’s enjoyment of the commons by producing noise pollution is regarded as a bully. C. Noise is one of the most common contaminants nowadays. D. People intentionally make noise when they work. Question 50: Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the passage? A. Incentive B. Explanatory C. Cynical D. Provocative ĐÁP ÁN 1.D 6.A 11.B 16.D 21.A 26.A 31.B 36.A 41.B 46.B 2.C 7.D 12.B 17.C 22.A 27.C 32.A 37.A 42.A 47.A 3.C 8.B 13.A 18.A 23.A 28.C 33.D 38.B 43.A 48.A 4. 9.C 14.D 19.D 24.A 29.B 34.B 39.D 44.C 49.D 5.A 10.A 15.A 20.B 25.B 30.A 35.A 40.D 45.A 50.B
6. PRACTICE TEST 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. missed B. coughed C. helped D. seemed Question 2: A. ancient B. angle C. capable D. danger Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. farewell B. famine C. feature D. firewood Question 4: A. celebrate B. accident C. interrupt D. calendar Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 5: The conveniences that Americans desire reflecting not so much a leisurely lifestyle as a busy lifestyle in which even minutes of time are too valuable to be wasted. A. reflecting B. leisurely C. are D. to be wasted Question 6: There is no denying the fact that many general texts as well as numerous research articles on interviewing in fields rather than journalism have been written. A. denying B. as well as C. on D. rather than Question 7: On the whole, ambitious students are much likely to succeed in their studies than are those with little ambition. A. On the whole B. are much likely C. are those D. with Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 8: I got up early, but I _______ so, because I had no work to do that morning. A. didn’t need to do B. needn’t have done C. need to do D. need have done Question 9: ______ the top of a hill, our school is very beautiful with green trees surrounded it. A. Seen from B. See from C. Seeing from D. Being seen from Question 10: A teacher’s ________ to education is worth great respect of the whole society because it brings benefits to the development of society. A. guidance B. principle C. identity D. devotion Question 11: In ________ most countries, a university degree can give you ________ flying start in life. A. the - a B. the - / C. / - / D. / - a Question 12: Tom was busying doing his homework; ______, his father was watching TV. A. therefore B. but C. however D. meanwhile Question 13: When I got off the crowded bus, I found my pocket ________ and the disk in it with the important documents gone. A. picked B. stolen C. missing D. lost Question 14: The disc, digitally _____ in the studio, sounded fantastic at the party that night. A. recorded B. recording C. to be recorded D. having recorded Question 15: Jenny is already in her fifties but many people say she looks very young ______ her age. A. at B. for C. by D. of Question 16: There is universal _______ that the programme has failed. A. commitment B. complement C. acknowledgment D. requirement Question 17: The river is already _____ its bans because of excessive rainfall; and the city is threatened with a likely flood. A. parallel to B. level in C. flat on D. flush with Question 18: The English Channel has always been a challenge to swimmers, which ________ about 100 swimmers a year who want to try it. A. adjusts to B. applies to C. appeals to D. belongs to Question 19: The WTO is the successor to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) established ________ the Second World War. A. in accordance with B. in the wake of C. in advance of D. in conflict with
7. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 20: - Sally: “According to my grandma, it is a good idea to eat chicken soup when you have a cold.” - Joanna: “_________, scientists agree with her.” A. As usual B. In a word C. At an end D. Believe it or not Question 21: - Passer-by: “_________” - Local resident: “Sure. It’s on Elm Street, between Eleventh and Twelfth Avenue.” A. Help, please. Could you tell me where the post office is? B. Sorry, where is the post office, please? C. Trouble you. Could you please tell me where the post office is? D. Excuse me. Do you know where the post office is? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The country carried on nuclear tests without feeling apprehensive about the consequences. A. optimistic B. anxious C. uncertain D. scared Question 23: Friday night, with his political future hanging by a thread, President Obama tried to come to his rescue. A. concerted B. grave C. stable D. unprecedented Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: The bank announced that it was to merge with another of the high street banks. A. separate B. cooperate C. assemble D. associate Question 25: Mahayana Buddhism is the main religion in China, Japan, Korea, and much of Vietnam. A. subordinate B. predominant C. commercial D. subsequent Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: “I’ll drop you from the team if you don’t train harder,” said the captain to John. A. The captain urged that John should train harder in order not to drop out. B. The captain threatened to drop John from the team unless he trained harder. C. John was reminded to train harder so as not to dropping from the team. D. The captain promised to drop John from the team in case he trains harder. Question 27: The leader of the group came up with the best solution to the problem. A. The leader of the group could solved the problem easily. B. No one could solve the problem except the leader of the group. C. The best solution to the problem was thought of by the leader of the group. D. The best solution to the problem was carried out by the leader of the group. Question 28: I believe that there is never any excuse for telling a lie. A. I don’t believe any of your excuses because they’re lies. B. If you lie to me, I’ll never believe any of your excuses. C. Because he’s already lied to me, I won’t accept any of his excuses. D. I don’t think that you can ever excuse lying. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Women still cover their heads in some countries. They did so in the past. A. Women cover their heads in some countries similar to what they did so in the past. B. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did so in the past. C. Women still cover their heads in some countries as they did in the past. D. In the past, women covered their heads but they do so today in some countries. Question 30: The Postal Service used the Roman god Mercury as its symbol. This was replaced in 1837
8. with a running pony. A. The Postal Service which was replaced in 1837 with a running pony usedthe Roman god Mercury as its symbol. B. The Postal Service used the Roman god Mercury as its symbol, which wasreplaced in 1837 with a running pony. C. The Postal Service, which used the Roman god Mercury as its symbol, was replaced in 1837 with a running pony. D. The Postal Service used a running pony as its symbol, which was replaced in 1837 with the Roman god Mercury. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Ausubel of Rockefeller University in New York, US. says the key renewable energy sources, including sun, wind and biofuels, would all require vast (31) ______ of land if developed up to large scale production – unlike nuclear power. That land would be far better left alone, he says. Renewables look attractive when they are quite small. But if we start producing renewable energy on a large scale, the fallout is going to be horrible. Instead, Ausubel argues (32) ______ renewed development of nuclear. Ausubel draws his conclusions by analysing the amount of energy renewables, natural gas and nuclear can produce in terms of power per square metre of land used. Moreover, he claims that as renewable energy use increases, this measure of efficiency will (33) ______ as the best land for wind, biofuels, and solar power gets used up. Using biofuels to obtain the same amount of energy as a 1000 megawatt nuclear power plant would require 2500 square kilometres of farm land, Ausubel says. “We should be sparing land for nature, not using it as pasture for cars and trucks,” he adds. Solar power is much more efficient than biofuel in terms of the area of land (34) ______, but it would still require 150 square kilometres of photovoltaic cells to (35) ______ the energy production of the 1000 MW nuclear plant. In another example, he says meeting the 2005 US electricity demand via wind power alone would need 780,000 square kilometres, an area the size of Texas. (Source: Question 31: A. figures B. amounts C. numbers D. digits Question 32 A. at B. over C. for D. against Question 33: A. expand B. minimize C. enlarge D. decrease Question 34: A. leased B. cultivated C. used D. purchased Question 35: A. patch B. match C. catch D. fetch Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 42. Carbon monoxide poisoning kills and injures many people and animals around the world. The gas has been a problem since people first began burning fuels to cook food or to create heat. It is a problem in all parts of the world that experience cold weather. Carbon monoxide is called the silent killer because people do not know it is in the air. The gas has no color. It has no taste. It has no smell. It does not cause burning eyes. And it does not cause people to cough. But it is very deadly. It robs the body of its ability to use oxygen. Carbon monoxide decreases the ability of the blood to carry oxygen to body tissues. It does this by linking with the blood. When the gas links with the blood, the blood is no longer able to carry oxygen to the tissues that need it. Damage to the body can begin very quickly from large amounts of carbon monoxide. How quickly this happens depends on the length of time a person is breathing the gas and the amount of the gas he or she breathes in. Carbon monoxide poisoning has warning signs. But people have to be awake to recognize them. Small amounts of the gas will cause a person’s head to hurt. He or she may begin to feel tired. The person may feel sick. The room may appear to be turning around. The person may have trouble thinking clearly.
9. People develop severe head pain as the amount of gas continues to enter their blood. They will begin to feel very tired and sleepy. They may have terrible stomach pains. Medical experts say carbon monoxide affects people differently. For example, a small child will experience health problems or die much quicker than an adult will. The general health of the person or his or her age can also be important. An older adult with health problems may suffer the effects of carbon monoxide more quickly than a younger person with no health problems. People with heart disease may suffer chest pains. They may begin to have trouble breathing. (Adapted from Question 36: Why is carbon monoxide called the silent killer? A. Because it tastes and smells good. B. Because it is not easily noticed. C. Because it kills and injures people. D. Because it always harm people. Question 37: How does carbon monoxide harm people? A. It makes people’s blood unable to move. B. It decreases the amount of blood in the body. C. It makes body tissues full of blood. D. It makes the blood less able to carry oxygen. Question 38: The word “them” in paragraph 5 refers to ______. A. carbon monoxide poisoning B. warning signs C. people D. amounts of the gas Question 39: When people breathe in small amounts of the gas, they may ________. A. feel a little dizzy B. suffer a severe headache C. go around in the room D. have a terrible stomachache Question 40: The phrase “severe head pain” in paragraph 5 could be best replaced by ______. A. splitting headache B. exertion headache C. sudden headache D. persistent headache Question 41: Which of the following about carbon monoxide poisoning is true? A. Adults are affected more seriously than children. B. Young people are more severely affected than old people. C. People in poor health may have more severe consequences. D. People with heart problem only suffer from chest pains. Question 42: The purpose of the passage is to ________. A. warn people not to burn fuels to keep warm in the winter B. list the damages that carbon monoxide brings to people C. give advice on how to avoid carbon monoxide poisoning D. introduce some knowledge about carbon monoxide poisoning Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 43 to 50. William Henry Gates III (Bill) was born on October 28, 1955, in Seattle, Washington. Bill was the second of three children in an upper-middle class family. He enjoyed playing games with the family and was very competitive. He also loved to read. Bill became bored in public school so his family sent him to Lakeside School, a private school, where he excelled in math and science and did well in drama and English. Gates became interested in computer programming when he was 13, during the era of giant mainframe computers. His school held a fund-raiser to purchase a teletype terminal so students could use computer time that was donated by General Electric. Using this time, Gates wrote a tic-tac-toe program using BASIC, one of the first computer languages. Later he created a computer version of Risk, a board game he liked in which the goal is world domination. At Lakeside, Bill met Paul Allen, who shared his interest in computers. Gates and Allen and two other students hacked into a computer belonging to Computer Center Corporation (CCC) to get free computer time but were caught. After a period of probation, they were allowed back in the computer lab when they offered to fix glitches in CCC’s software. At age 17, Gates and Allen were paid $20,000 for a program called Traf-O-Data that was used to count traffic. In early 1973, Bill Gates served as a congressional page in the U.S. House of Representatives. He scored 1590 out of 1600 on the SAT and was accepted by Harvard University. Steve Ballmer, who became CEO of Microsoft after Bill retired, was also a Harvard student. Meanwhile, Paul Allen dropped out of
10. Washington College to work on computers at Honeywell Corporation and convinced Gates to drop out of Harvard and join him in starting a new software company in Albuquerque, New Mexico. They called it Micro-Soft. This was soon changed to Microsoft, and they moved their company to Bellevue, Washington. In 1980, IBM, one of the largest technology companies of the era, asked Microsoft to write software to run their new personal computer, the IBM PC. Microsoft kept the licensing rights for the operating system (MS-DOS) so that they earned money for every computer sold first by IBM, and later by all the other companies that made PC computers. Microsoft grew quickly from 25 employees in 1978 to over 90,000 today. Over the years, Microsoft developed many new technologies and some of the world’s most popular software and products such as Word and Power Point. Although some have criticized Gates for using questionable business practices, he built Microsoft into one of the largest companies in the world. He has been described as brilliant but childlike, driven, competitive, intense, fun, but lacking in empathy. Bill Gates is one of the richest men in the world. In 2012, his $61 billion dollars in assets made him the world’s second richest man according to Forbes Magazine. In 2006, Gates announced that he would cut back his involvement at Microsoft to spend more time on philanthropy and his foundation. The Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation supports many causes including the quest to eradicate Polio, fighting AIDS, malaria and tuberculosis; providing vaccinations for children; and even reinventing the toilet among many other things. (Adapted from Question 43: Which is NOT true about Bill Gates in the first paragraph? A. He enjoyed public school B. He was involved in drama C. He was competitive D. He was born in Seattle, Washington Question 44: The second to last paragraph describes _________. A. how Bill Gates became a billionnaire B. the technical details of MS-DOS C. how Microsoft became a bigger company than IBM D. how Microsoft rose to a major corporation Question 45: Which of the following was the EFFECT of Bill hacking into the CCC computer? A. They were allowed back on the computer eventually B. He wrote a TIC-TAC-TOE program C. He lost computer privileges D. He met Paul Allen Question 46: In which of the following ways were Bill Gates and Paul Allen NOT alike? A. They both liked computers B. They went to the same school C. They both went to the same college D. They both dropped out of college Question 47: If the entire passage was limited to the last paragraph, what would an appropriate name for the passage be? A. Microsoft and its Software B. The Business Practices of Microsoft C. The Rise of Microsoft D. Microsoft and its Billionnaires Question 48: What does the word “philanthropy” mean in the last paragraph? A. wealth B. charity C. computer technology D. business Question 49: Which of the following WAS NOT a program written by Bill Gates or Paul Allen? A. A computerized version of Tic-Tac-Toe B. A computerized version of Risk C. Traf-o-Data D. BASIC Question 50: Microsoft earned money every time _________. A. Traf-O-data was used B. IBM built a computer C. IBM sold a computer running MS-DOS D. CCC used its software -----THE END----
11. ĐÁP ÁN 1.D 6.D 11.D 16.C 21.D 26.B 31.B 36.B 41.C 46.C 2.B 7.B 12.D 17.D 22.B 27.C 32.C 37.D 42.D 47.D 3.A 8.B 13.A 18.C 23.B 28.D 33.D 38.B 43.A 48.B 4.C 9.A 14.A 19.B 24.A 29.C 34.C 39.A 44.D 49.D 5.A 10.D 15.B 20.D 25.A 30.C 35.B 40.A 45.C 50.C
12. PRACTICE TEST 3 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 1. You should have persuaded him to change his mind. A. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen. B. You should persuade him to change his mind. C. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind. D. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t. Question 2. “No, it wasn’t me who broke the antique vase.” said the child. A. The child denied having broken the antique vase. B. The child refused to have broken the antique vase. C. The child accepted to have broken the antique vase. D. The child objected to having broken the antique vase. Question 3. The more he learned about the job, the less interested he got. A. As soon as he learned about the interesting job, he got it. B. Though learning that the job is not interesting, he got it. C. Even though the job is not interesting, he learned about it. D. When he got to know more about the job, he lost his interest in it. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that bests fits each of the numbered blanks from 4 to 8. Isolated from the mainland, the Con Dao islands are one of Vietnam’s star (4) ______. Long preserve of political prisoners and undesirables, they now turn heads thanks to their striking natural beauty. Con Son, the (5) ______ of this chain of 15 islands and islets, is ringed with lovely beaches, coral reefs and scenic bays, and remains partially covered (6) ______ tropical forests. In addition to hiking, diving and exploring deserted coastal roads, there are excellent wildlife–watching opportunities, such as the black giant squirrel and endemic bow–fingered gecko. (7) ______ it seems an island paradise, Con Son was once hell on earth for the thousands of prisoners who languished in a dozen jails during French rule and the American–backed regime. Many Vietnamese visitors are former soldiers (8) ______ were imprisoned on the island. Until recently, few foreigners visited Con Dao, but with the commencement of low–cost boat connections this looks sure to change. (Adapted from Question 4. A. attractive B. attract C. attractions D. attractiveness Question 5. A. largest B. larger C. most large D. large Question 6. A. of B. to C. for D. in
13. Question 7. A. Even B. However C. Therefore D. Although Question 8. A. which B. who C. what D. they Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 9. That house hasn’t been occupied for three years now. It must be haunted since no one is renting or buying it. A. cleaned B. taken C. absent D. vacant Question 10. He’s such a phony. He’s always complaining about his friends behind their back, but whenever he sees them, he says really nice things about them. A. to be bad at acting B. to tell lies all the time C. to pretend to like others D. to try to make friends Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 11. Two friends Jane and Thomas are talking about their final term test. Jane: “I’ve been half ready for the final term test.” – Thomas: “_________” A. Thank you so much. B. You are welcome! C. Then, I’d call it a day. D. Incredible! I haven’t even started. Question 12. James and Kate are in a café. James: “_______” – Kate: “Thank you. Could I have a cup of coffee?” A. Will you buy tea or coffee on the way home? B. Do you want something to eat right now? C. Would you like something to drink? D. Are you tired after a long journey? Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 13. A. symbolic B. expensive C. disastrous D. confident Question 14. A. realize B. devote C. postpone D. decide Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 15 to 22. It weighed about 10,000 tons, entered the atmosphere at a speed of 64,000 km/h and exploded over a city with a blast of 500 kilotons. But on 15 February 2013, we were lucky. The meteorite that showered pieces of rock over Chelyabinsk, Russia, was relatively small, at only about 17 metres wide. Although many people were injured by falling glass, the damage was nothing compared to what had happened in Siberia nearly one hundred years ago. Another relatively small object (approximately 50 metres in diameter) exploded in mid–air over a forest region, flattening about 80 million trees. If it had exploded over a city such as Moscow or London, millions of people would have been killed. By a strange coincidence, the same day that the meteorite terrified the people of Chelyabinsk, another 50m–
14. wide asteroid passed relatively close to Earth. Scientists were expecting that visit and know that the asteroid will return to fly close by us in 2046, but the Russian meteorite earlier in the day had been too small for anyone to spot. Most scientists agree that comets and asteroids pose the biggest natural threat to human existence. It was probably a large asteroid or comet colliding with Earth which wiped out the dinosaurs about 65 million years ago. An enormous object, 10 to 16 km in diameter, struck the Yucatan region of Mexico with the force of 100 megatons. That is the equivalent of one Hiroshima bomb for every person alive on Earth today. Many scientists, including the late Stephen Hawking, say that any comet or asteroid greater than 20 km in diameter that hits Earth will result in the complete destruction of complex life, including all animals and most plants. As we have seen, even a much smaller asteroid can cause great damage. The Earth has been kept fairly safe for the last 65 million years by good fortune and the massive gravitational field of the planet Jupiter. Our cosmic guardian, with its stable circular orbit far from the sun, sweeps up and scatters away most of the dangerous comets and asteroids which might cross Earth’s orbit. After the Chelyabinsk meteorite, scientists are now monitoring potential hazards even more carefully but, as far as they know, there is no danger in the foreseeable future. (Adapted from British Council Learning English Teens) Question 15. According to the last paragraph, scientists say that_____. A. their early warning systems will protect us B. a meteorite is likely to hit Earth sooner or later C. all the possible dangers are being monitored carefully D. we are not in any danger for the moment Question 16. It can be inferred from the 1st paragraph that the Siberian meteorite ______. A. could be much worse B. caused many deaths due to falling glass C. was not as destructive as the one in Russia D. was greatly reduced by the early warning system Question 17. Which of the following statement is TRUE about the Russian meteorite? A. It was too small to worry about. B. It came as a surprise. C. It had been predicted by scientists. D. It will come close to Earth again in the future. Question 18. On the same day as the meteorite exploded over Chelyabinsk, _______. A. scientists realized that an even bigger asteroid could hit the Earth B. an asteroid terrified the people of Chelyabinsk C. scientists spotted many other asteroids around the Earth D. there was another unrelated asteroid event Question 19. The word “blast” is closest in meaning to ______.
15. A. explosion B. collision C. event D. crisis Question 20. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT ______. A. Earth has been relatively safe thanks to luck and the protective force of another planet from our solar system B. Comets and asteroids could put an end to all plant and animal life on Earth C. A small asteroid can still cause a lot of damage D. Millions of people were killed in an explosion of a meteorite in Moscow and London Question 21. The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to _____. A. Rock B. Meteorite C. City D. Object Question 22. Which could be the best title for the passage? A. The Russian Meteorite: A Disaster B. A Strange Coincidence C. Meteorite Killed Millions Of People D. The End Of Life On Earth? Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 23. If minor disputes are left unsettled, tough ones will accumulate sooner or later. A. decrease in number B. increase in number C. improve in quality D. decline in volume Question 24. He went through much hardship before he became a successful businessman. A. met B. accepted C. endured D. created Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 25 to 29. HISTORY OF POTATO CHIPS Peru’s Inca Indians first grew potatoes in the Andes Mountains in about 200 BC. Spanish conquistadors brought potatoes to Europe, and colonists brought them to America. Potatoes are fourth on the list of the world’s food staples – after wheat, corn, and rice. Today, Americans consume about 140 pounds of potatoes per person every year, while Europeans eat twice as many. One of our favourite ways to eat potatoes is in the form of potato chips. While Benjamin Franklin was the American ambassador to France, he went to a banquet where potatoes were prepared in 20 different ways. Thomas Jefferson, who succeeded Franklin as our French ambassador, brought the recipe for thick–cut, French fried potatoes to America. He served French fries to guests at the White House in 1802 and at his home, Monticello. A native American chef named George Crum created the first potato chips on August 24, 1853, at Moon Lake Lodge in Saratoga, New York. He became angry when a diner complained that his French fries were too thick, so he sliced the potatoes as thinly as possible, making them too thin and crisp to eat with a fork. The diner loved them, and potato chips were born. In 1860, Chef Crum opened his own restaurant and offered a basket of potato chips on every table.
16. Joe “Spud” Murphy and Seamus Burke produced the world’s first seasoned crisps, cheese & onion and salt & vinegar chips, in the 1950s in Ireland. In the United Kingdom and Ireland, crisps are what we, in the United States, call potato chips, while their chips refer to our French fries. Ketchup–flavored chips are popular in the Middle East and Canada. Seaweed–flavored chips are popular in Asia, and chicken–flavored chips are popular in Mexico. Other flavors from around the world include: paprika, pickled onions, béarnaise, meat pie, chili crab, salmon teriyaki, borscht, Caesar salad, roasted sausage, firecracker lobster, roast ox, haggis and black pepper, olive, and spaghetti. (Adapted from Question 25. The word “them” in the passage refers to ______. A. potatoes B. colonists C. conquistadors D. Indians Question 26. What happened in the 1950s? A. The world’s first French fries were produced B. The world’s first seasoned potato chips were produced. C. The world’s first potato chips were produced. D. The world’s first seasoned French fries were produced. Question 27. Which of the following is a true statement? A. Different flavored potato chips are popular in different parts of the world. B. Potato chips are only popular in America. C. Ketchup–flavored potato chips are most popular in America. D. Potato chips are not really eaten very much in Asia. Question 28. Potato chips are called _____ in the United Kingdom. A. fries B. crisps C. lobsters D. potatoes Question 29. What question is answered in the second paragraph? A. Who invented the potato chip? B. How many pounds of potatoes are eaten per person in America each year? C. When were salt & vinegar chips invented? D. Who served French fries in the White House? Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 30. A. heritage B. package C. passage D. teenage Question 31. A. remained B. increased C. described D. amazed Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 32. My uncle has gone to Nha Trang on vacation, but I wish he is here so that he could help me
17. repair my bicycle. A. could help B. has gone C. he is D. on vacation Question 33. Air pollution, together with littering, are causing many problems in our large, industrial cities today. A. with B. in C. are D. industrial Question 34. Leonardo is often thought of primarily as an artist, and with masterclasses such as The Last Supper and the Mona Lisa to his credit, his place in art history is assured. A. masterclasses B. thought of C. place D. to his credit Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 35. Although we had told them not to keep us waiting, they made no _____ to speed up deliveries. A. comment B. action C. attempt D. progress Question 36. You really dropped _____ the other day when you told Brian you’d seen his wife at the cinema. He thought she was at her mother’s. A. a plank B. a log C. a brick D. a stone Question 37. I can’t possibly lend you any more money; it is quite out of the _____. A. place B. question C. order D. practice Question 38. When a fire broke out in the Louvre, at least twenty ______ paintings were destroyed, including two by Van Gogh. A. worthy B. priceless C. worthless D. valueless Question 39. _____only in the Andes, the plant is used by local people to treat skin diseases. A. Finding B. Found C. Having found D. Founded Question 40. If the world’s tropical forests continue to disappear at their present rate, many animal species _____ extinct. A. would become B. would have become C. became D. will become Question 41. Half the way of the trip, we stopped _____ and let the others _____ up with us. A. to rest/catch B. resting/catch C. resting/to catch D. to rest/to catch Question 42. ______ get older, the games they play become increasingly complex. A. For children to B. Children, when C. Although children D. As children Question 43. My mother _____ strawberries for years but she has never had such a good crop before. A. had grown B. is growing C. grew D. has been growing Question 44. Your mother _____ read a bit of a letter you received because she opened it without looking at the name on the envelope. A. silently B. intentionally C. deliberately D. accidentally
18. Question 45. It was not until the end of the nineteenth century ______. A. did plant breeding become a scientific discipline B. that plant breeding became a scientific discipline C. that a scientific discipline was plant breeding D. did a scientific discipline become plant breeding Question 46. “Did you have ______ nice holiday?” – “Yes, it was ______ best holiday I have ever had.” A. a – the B. the – the C. the – a D. a – a Question 47. The equator is an ______ line that divides the Earth into two. A. imaginable B. imaginary C. imagination D. imaginative Question 48. This survey is to find out the young people’s attitudes _______ love. A. into B. with C. for D. toward Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49. They finished one project. They started working on the next right away. A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next. B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next. C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next. D. Not until did they start working on the next project when they finished one. Question 50. Having been informed of her critical condition, he decided not to tell her his financial problem. A. He told her about his money issue because he was in critical condition. B. He did not mention his financial problem as he was aware of her critical condition. C. Someone informed her that he was having a financial problem when she was in critical condition. D. Despite knowing her critical condition, he talked about his financial problem. ĐÁP ÁN 1.D 6.D 11.D 16.A 21.B 26.B 31.B 36.C 41.A 46.A 2.A 7.D 12.C 17.B 22.D 27.A 32.C 37.B 42.D 47.B 3.D 8.B 13.D 18.A 23.B 28.B 33.D 38.B 43.D 48.D 4.C 9.D 14.A 19.A 24.C 29.D 34.A 39.B 44.D 49.C 5.A 10.A 15.D 20.D 25.A 30.D 35.C 40.D 45.B 50.B
19. PRACTICE TEST 4 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 1. Sleeping, resting and to drink fruit juice are the best ways to care for a cold. A. juice B. best ways C. Sleeping D. to drink Question 2. If we had more time last week, we would certainly have finished the project on time. A. had B. on time C. certainly D. the Question 3. For centuries, musics have played acoustical guitars, which produce sound from the vibration of the strings. A. musics B. which C. sound D. vibration Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 4. His short but pointed speech was applauded by all sections of the audience. A. welcomed B. misunderstood C. praised D. disapproved Question 5. The chairman initiated the proceedings with a brief speech. A. complicated B. started C. closed D. confused Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheel to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6. It's silly of him to spend a lot of money buying _______ . A. a thick wooden old table B. a thick old wooden table C. an old wooden thick table D. a wooden thick old table Question 7. Poor management brought the company to _______ of collapse. A. the brink B. the foot C. the edge D. the ring Question 8. It is necessary that he _______ of his old parents. A. to take care B. took care C. take care D. takes care Question 9. Jane's eyes burned and her shoulders ached. She _______ at the computer for five straight hours. Finally, she took a break. A. had sat B. has been sitting C. had been sitting D.has sat Question 10. Tom seldom drinks coffee, _______. A. doesn't Tom B. does Tom C. doesn't he D. does he Question 11. He built up a successful business but it was all done _______ of his health. A. by the expense B. at the price C. at all cost D. at the expense Question 12. He is a good team leader who always acts ______ in case of emergency. A. decide B. decisive C. decision D. decisively
20. Question 13. If orders keep coming in like this, I'll have to _______ more staff. A. add in B. give up C. take on D. gain on Question 14. _______ there is not enough information on the effects of smoke in the atmosphere, doctors have proved that air pollution causes lung diseases. A. In spite of B. Although C. Therefore D. However Question 15. My sister Jo is _______ person in our family. A. shorter B. the shorter C. the shortest D. the most short Question 16. I can't understand why you have to make such a _____ about something so unimportant. A. fuss B. mess C. bother D. stir Question 17. Thanks to the help of his teacher and classmates, he made great ______ and passed the endterm exam with high marks. A. fortunes B. experience C. progress D. work Question 18. The larger the city, _______ the crime rate. A. the higher B. higher C. highest D. the highest Question 19. Could you please tell me _______? A. how far it is to the nearest bus stop B. how far is it to the nearest bus stop C. it is how far to the nearest bus stop D. how far to the nearest bus stop is it Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The first thing to do when you have a trip abroad is to check that your passport is valid. Holders of out–of–date passports are not allowed to travel overseas. Then you can prepare for your trip. If you don't know the language, you can have all kinds of problems communicating with local people. Buying a pocket dictionary can make a difference. You'll be able to order food, buy things in shops and ask for directions. It's worth getting one. Also there's nothing worse than arriving at your destination to find there are no hotels available. The obvious way to avoid this is to book in advance. This can save you money too. Another frustrating thing that can happen is to go somewhere and not know about important sightseeing places. Get a guide book before you leave and make the most of your trip. It's a must. Then, when you are ready to pack your clothes, make sure they are the right kind. It's no good packing sweaters and coats for a hot country or T–shirts and shorts for a cold one. Check the local climate before you leave. Also, be careful how much you pack in your bags. It's easy to take too many clothes and then not have enough space for souvenirs. But make sure you pack essentials. What about money? Well, it's a good idea to take some local currency with you but not too much. There are conveniently located cash machines (ATMs) in most big cities, and it's usually cheaper to use them than change your cash in banks. Then you'll have more money to spend. When you are at your destination, other travellers often have great information